Institute of Banking Personnel Selection : Download Clerk PO Solved Question Papers

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection

IBPS PO/ Clerk Solved Sample Question Papers

Q. RBI, in its annual policy for 2011-12, has estimated the wholesale price inflation at about which among the following fractions by March 2012?

1. 5%
2. 6%
3. 8%
4. 9%

Q. Who amongst the following was India’s official candidate for the post of UNO’s Secretary Gene- ral ?

1. Mr. Shyam Saran
2. Dr. Rangarajan
3. Mr. Shashi Tharoor
4. Mr. Vijay Nambiar
5. None of these

Q. In India Census is done after a gap of every____________

1. Five years
2. Seven years
3. Eight years
4. Ten years
5. Fifteen years

Q. Which of the following pheno-menon is considered responsible for ‘Global Warming’?

1. Greenhouse Gas Effect
2. Fox Fire
3. Dry Farming
4. Radioactivity
5. None of these

Q. Which of the following Satellites recently dedicated to nation helps Direct to Home Television Service in India ?

1. Matsat
2. Edusat
3. Insat–4b
4. Insat–IB
5. None of these

Q. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently raised the interest rate on savings bank deposits and the repo rate by 50 basis points (bps). In this context, consider the following:
1. CASA Ratio
2. Net Interest Margin
Which among the above of the commercial banks would be affected by the above step taken by the Reserve Bank of India ?

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 & 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called?

1. FDI
2. Portfolio Investment
3. NRI Investment
4. Foreign Indirect Investment

Q. In which year, the World Bank revised the common international poverty line to $1.25 at the 2005 purchasing power parity?

1. 2006
2. 2007
3. 2008
4. 2009

Q. As per the recent estimates, India’s overall foodgrain production is expected to be 241.56 million tonnes, which is highest ever. Which among the following shares the maximum quantity in this ?

1. Rice
2. Wheat
3. Coarse cereals
4. Maize

Q. Recently RBI governor D Subbarao has pointed out that “recent global macro economic developments pose some risks to domestic growth.” What does he refer to by using the term “domestic growth”?

1. Per Capita Income
2. Gross Domestic Product
3. Net National product
4. Net National Product per capita

Q.  Lending rates are expected to rise further in the coming months because the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to ………………….. Which among the following would fill the space correctly?

1. Increase policy rates
2. Decrease Policy Rates
3. Conduct Open Market Operations
4. Conduct Repo Auctions

Q . Recently we read in the newspapers that in the country , there are undoubtedly, negative risks to the fiscal deficit target of 4.6 per cent for 2011-12. Which among the following does not poses such risk to the fiscal deficit targets?

1. The higher Fuels, Food and Fertilizers prices
2. Burden of Subsidy
3. Low collection of Tax Revenue
4. Lower external commercial borrowings

Q. What was the initial growth target of the Eleventh Plan (2007-08 to 2011-12) on an average a year?

1. 7%
2. 8%
3. 9%
4. 10%

Q. In the first four years of the Eleventh Plan, Indian economy expanded by which among the following fractions?

1. 8.15%
2. 8.30%
3. 8.45%
4. 8.65%

Q. OPEC is a group of countries which are_______

1. exporting oil
2. producting cotton
3. rich and developed
4. developing and poor
5. nuclear powers

Q. Recently we read in the newspapers that World Bank has now endorsed a longstanding proposal that governments should impose a carbon levy. What is Carbon Levy?

1. It’s a tax levied on jet and shipping fuel to finance climate change mitigation
2. It’s a tax levied on carbon fuel
3. It’s a tax levied on production of fossil fuel and coal
4. It’s a tax levied on production of coal only

Q. Sandhyarani Devi Wangkhem, was a winner of a Silver Medal in the 2010 Asian Games in Guangzhou , China . In which sports she won this medal?

1. Shooting
2. Taekwando
3. Squash
4. Wushu

Q. ASBA (application Supported by Blocked Amounts) is a term used in which of the following sectors?

1. Aviation
2. Real Estate
3. Insurance
4. Capital Markets

Q. Which of the following started production at India’s largest naphtha cracker project recently?

1. ONGC
2. Essar Oil
3. Indian Oil
4. Reliance Industries Ltd

Q. Which of the following is/are correctly matched after RBI’s ‘Third Quarter Review of Monetary Policy 2010-11’ on January 26, 2011?
I. Repo rate – 6.5%
II. Reserve Repo rate – 5.5%
III. Cash Reserve Ratio – 6%

1. I only
2. I and II only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

Q. The union finance Ministry raised the tax collection target for 2010-11 to _________ recently.

1. Rs 782000 crore
2. Rs 834000 crore
3. Rs 871000 crore
4. Rs 902000 crore

Q. Which of the following became the first oil & Gas Company to find shale gas deposits in India recently?

1. Reliance Industries Ltd.
2. Carin India
3. Essar Oil
4. ONGC

Q .Who among the following has been recently appointed as chairman of Central Board of Direct Taxes?

1. Prakash Chandra
2. Sudhir Chandra
3. Satyanand Mishra
4. Sri Kumar

Q. According to the state-wise cotton crop data released by the Agriculture Ministry for 2010-11 on 25 July 2011 which variety of cotton emerged as the largest cotton crop in all the major cotton producing states?

1. V-797
2. RS2013
3. Digvijay
4. Bt cotton

Q. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?

1. 7%
2. 7.5%
3. 8%
4. 8.5%

Q. The Union government on 26 July 2011 announced restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme for export of cotton. Which of the following is/are not true with regard to the following?
1. Restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme was announced for export of cotton with retrospective effect from 1 April 2011 and on cotton yarn from 1 October 2010.
2. Cotton yarn had been placed under Open General License for exports from 1 October 2011.
3. Exports of cotton were dis-incentivized by virtue of export tax, following a sharp rise in prices in January 2011.
4. Restrictions continue to remain on export of cotton, that is, 65 lakh bales this year.

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 & 2
4. Only 4

Q .Who among the following had written the books “Reintegrating India with the World Economy’ and ‘Understanding Reforms’.?

1. C Rangrajan
2. Amartya Sen
3. Suresh Tendulkar
4. C K Prahalad

Q. As per the recent Data released by the Central Statistical Organization, what is India ’s Per capita income in 2010-11?

1. Rs. 54835
2. Rs. 52165
3. Rs. 56115
4. Rs. 50143

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Exam : Download IBPS PO Clerk Solved Papers

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Exam
PO/ Clerk Solved Question Papers 

Q. Buffer is device/storage area–

1. Where data are temporarily stored
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–

1. Car Topology
2. Bus Topology
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. An error in a computer program is referred as–

1. Bug
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–

1. Car
2. Bus
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–

1. Byte
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. Cache memory is a–

1. Small buffer storage
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–

1. Number system
2. Base
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. Cache memory is–

1. Smaller and faster than main storage
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

Q. Cache memory–

1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both above are true .
4. Both above are false
5. None of these

Q. Following is false for BASIC–

1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language
5. None of these

Q. A unit for measuring data transmission speed that describes the capacity of a carrier is referred as–

1. Baud
2. Bit
3. Bond
4. All of the above
5. Batch

Q. A process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally manufactured/developed–

1. Alpha test
2. Beta Test
3. Gamma test
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A selection, choice, or condition involving two possibilities is referred as–

1. Unary
2. Binary
3. Octal
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. Base band System is–

1. A networking system
2. Where the channel support a single digital signal
3. above are true
4. All of the above
5. None is true

Q. One of the early coding systems, based on the idea of converting each digit of a decimal number into its binary equivalent rather than converting the entire decimal value into a pure binary form is–

1. ASCII code
2. BCD
3. ASCII-8
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. In Batch processing–

1. Several computer programs runs one after another without human interaction to run each program individually
2. Several computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
3. Selected computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
4. All of the above
5. None is true

Q. BISYNC is–

1. Binary synchronous
2. A process of transmitting data
3. A half-duplex, character oriented, synchronous data communication transmission method
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A device that is used to transmit data from one location to another is referred as–

1. Storage
2. Memory
3. Carrier
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. Programs developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine readable form is known as–

1. Canned programs
2. Beta program
3. Alpha program
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A binary numbers are represented by–

1. Digits 0 and 1
2. Digits 0, 1, ..., 8
3. Digits AB, C,...
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. BIOS is responsible for

1. Handling the particulars of input/output operations
2. Output operations
3. Input operations
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. BIOS is an abbreviation for–

1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. BISYNC is an abbreviation for–

1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. The overall design, construction, organization and interconnecting of the various components of a computer system is referred as–

1. Computer Architecture
2. Computer Flowchart
3. Computer Algorithm
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A number system with a base of two is referred as–

1. Uniary number system
2. Binary number system
3. Octal number system
4. All of the above
5. None of these

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection : Download IBPS Solved Question Papers

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection

IBPS PO/Clerk Solved Question Paper

Q.963 + 560 ÷ 35 = ?

1. 45
2. 981
3. 870
4. 43
5. None of these 

Q. 14400 ÷ 64 ÷ 9 = ?

1. 27
2. 23
3. 29
4. 21
5. None of these

Q. 14.8 × 12.3 × 8.6 = ?

1. 1555.454
2. 1535.445
3. 1545.545
4. 1565.544
5. None of these

Q. 45% of 720 = 30% of ?

1. 960
2. 1080
3. 1240
4. 820
5. None of these

Q. 3 1/6 + 4 2/3 - 1 1/4 = ?

1. 4 1/6
2. 6 2/9
3. 6 7/12
4. 5 1/9
5. None of these

Q. 63251 + 52894 = ? + 37624

1. 87812
2. 67281
3. 76821
4. 78521
5. None of these

Q.  7 2/7 of 189 + 452 = 2000 - ?

1. 183
2. 164
3. 170
4. 198
5. None of these 

Q. 68% of 595 - 43% of 372 = ?

1. 244.64
2. 232.84
3. 278.44
4. 260.24
5. None of these

Q. 35% of (?) = 2175.95

1. 6712
2. 6217
3. 6127
4. 6721
5. None of these

Q. ? ÷ 52 × 12 = 252

1. 1242
2. 992
3. 1142
4. 1346
5. None of these 

Q. (45)2 + (21)2 = (?)2 + 257

1. 51
2. 49
3. 45
4. 47
5. None of these

Q. 90780 ÷ v? = 85 × 12

1. 89
2. 7921 
3. 7569
4. 87
5. None of these

Q. 1862 ÷ 28 = ?

1. 66.5
2. 67
3. 64.5
4. 69
5. None of these

Q. 63% of 962 + ? = 999

1. 346.92
2. 368.64
3. 392.94
4. 402.68
5. None of these

Q. 743 + 958 = ?% of 5670

1. 34
2. 26
3. 30
4. 22
5. None of these

Q. v5929 = ?

1. 77
2. 83
3. 87
4. 93
5. None of these

Q. 638 + 254 ÷ 8 × 4 = ?

1. 646
2. 545
3. 446
4. 765
5. None of these

Q. 65% of 400 + v? = 44% of 800-12% of 400

1. 1936
2. 44
3. 2116
4. 46
5. None of these

Q. 18 × 14 + 46    = ?
      16 × 10 - 23

1. 1 1/2
2. 2 24/137
3. 4 37/138
4. 3 32/173
5. None of these

Q. 8 × 5 + (?)2 = (11)2

1. 81
2. 6561
3. 9
4. 27
5. None of these

Q. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
1    4    14    45    139    422    ?

1. 1268
2. 1234
3. 1272
4. 1216
5. None of these

Q. 38 per cent of first number is 52 per cent of the second number. What is the respective ratio of the first number to the second number?

1. 5 : 4
2. 16 : 9
3. 26 : 19
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these

Q. What is the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 12,000 at the rate of 10 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years?

1. Rs. 3,972
2. Rs. 2,567
3. Rs. 4,780
4. Rs. 5,609
5. None of these

Q. The average age of a man and his son is 54 years. The ratio of their ages is 23 : 13 respectively. What will be ratio of their ages after 6 years?

1. 10 : 7
2. 5 : 3
3. 4 : 3
4. 3 : 2
5. None of these

Q. A single person takes 3 minutes to write a letter. If from 10 a.m. to 12.00 noon, 1960 letters are to be written, how many persons should be employed on this job?

1. 53
2. 47
3. 51
4. 49 
5. None of these

Q. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 9,530 at the end of 6 years is Rs 2,859. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a?

1. 5
2. 7
3. 9
4. 11
5. None of these

Q. The cost of 10 Chairs and 15 Tables is Rs. 15,525. What is the cost of 8 Chairs and 12 Tables?

1. Rs. 13,560
2. Rs. 12,420
3. Rs. 14,840
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these

Q. The owner of a Gift shop charges his customer 28% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 1,408 for some Soft toys, then what was the cost price of those Soft toys?

1. Rs. 1,300
2. Rs. 1,000
3. Rs. 1,200
4. Rs. 1,400
5. None of these

Q. A plot of 715 sq ft is available at the rate of Rs 3,850 per sq ft. If 40% of the total cost of the plot is to be paid for booking the plot, how much is the booking amount?

1. Rs. 11,10,000
2. Rs. 11,01,100
3. Rs. 11,01,000
4. Rs. 11,00,100
5. None of these

Q. If the product of two successive positive integers is 3192, which is the smaller integer?

1. 52
2. 58
3. 54
4. 56
5. None of these

Q. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
59.786 ÷ 14.444 × 8.321 = ?

1. 49
2. 58
3. 22
4. 66
5. None of these 

Q. A sum of money is divided among A, B, C and D in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 7 : 11 respectively. If the share of C is Rs. 1,351, then what is the total amount of money of A and D together?

1. Rs. 2,123
2. Rs. 2,316
3. Rs. 2,565
4. Rs. 2,895
5. None of these

Q. Mr Madhur deposits an amount of Rs. 58,750 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 12 p.c.p.a for 4 years. What total amount will Mr Madhur get at the end of 4 years?

1. Rs. 91,230
2. Rs. 86,950
3. Rs. 74,760
4. Rs. 69,540
5. None of these

Q. If an amount of Rs. 96,393 is distributed equally amongest 33 children. How much amount would each child get?

1. Rs. 2,789
2. Rs. 2,563
3. Rs. 2,860
4. Rs. 2,921 
5. None of these

Q. The difference between 73% of a number and 58% of the same number is 960. What is 22% of that number?

1. 1408
2. 1232
3. 1324
4. 1536
5. None of these

Q. One-seventh of a number is 39. What will be 56% of that number?

1. 164.66
2. 152.88
3. 178.22
4. 182.44
5. None of these

Q. In a class of 55 students and 3 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20% of the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 60% of the total number of students. How many sweets were there?

1. 737
2. 671
3. 714
4. 638
5. None of these 

Q. If (108)2 is added to the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 13033. What is the number?

1. 33
2. 43
3. 37
4. 47
5. None of these

Q. In an examination it is required to get 350 of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 32% marks and is declared failed by 70 marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?

1. 885
2. 865
3. 875
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these

Q. Which number should replace both the question marks in the following equation?
  ?      =   97
388          ?

1. 222
2. 196
3. 206
4. 178
5. None of these 

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection : IBPS Solved Question Papers

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection

PO/ Clerk Solved Question Papers

Q. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ADIC using each letter only once in each word?

1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three

Q . Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1. Violin
2. Harp
3. Guitar
4. Flute
5. Sitar

Q.  In a certain language 'give me more' is coded as '7 3 5', 'she has more' is coded as '9 7 1' and 'she asked me gently' is coded as '6 3 2 1'. Which of the following is the code for 'give' in that language?

1. 5
2. 7
3. 6
4. 9
5. 1

Q.  If each of the vowels in the word GOLIATHS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be sixth from the left of the new arrangement thus formed?

1. S
2. P
3. G
4. J
5. F

Q.  In a certain language 'WEAK' is coded as 4$9ß' and REST' is coded as 7$8#' and 'WREK' is ceded as '4$ß7'. How will 'KEWRA' be coded in the same code?

1. 7 4 $ ß #
2. ß 7 $ 8 #
3. # ß 9 7 4
4. $ ß 7  9 4  
5. 4 7 8  ß $

Q.  How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FORMATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?

1. None
2. One
3. Two 
4. Three
5. More than three

Q.  If the digits in the number 79246358 are arranged in descending order from left to right, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left in the new arrangement?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4 
5. 5

Q. 'Music' is related to 'Notes' in the same way as 'Language' is related to _____

1. Sentences
2. Combination
3. Grammar
4. Alphabets 
5. Syntax

Directions  : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow :
If 'P * Q means 'P is the mother of Q'.
If 'P x Q' means 'P is the father of Q'.
If 'P + Q' means 'P is the sister  of Q'.
If 'P - Q' means 'P is the brother of Q'.
If 'P > Q' means 'P is the son of Q'.
If 'P < Q' means 'P is the daughter of Q'.

Q. In the expression 'A x B + R > S' how is S related to A?

1. Daughter
2. Son
3. Niece
4. Nephew
5. Cannot be determined

Q.Which of the following means P is the father of S ?

1. P x Q < R * S 
2. R x P < Q - S
3. R + S > Q + P
4. S + Q - R * P
5. Cannot be determined

Q. In the expression 'P + Q> A - B' how is P related to B?

1. Daughter
2. Son
3. Niece  
4. Nephew
5. Cannot be determined

Q.  Which of the following means D is the aunt of C?

1. D > B * A * C
2. D + B - C * A  
3. D - B - A x C
4. D + B x A x C
5. None of these

Q.. In the expression 'W > X < Y  * Z 'how is W related to Z?

1. Nephew  
2. Uncle
3. Son
4. Brother-in-law
5. None of these

Q.  If  it is possible to mark only one meaningful word with the first, fourth, fifth and tenth letters of the word TELEVISION, which of the fallowing would be the second letter of that word from the right end? If no such word can be made, give 'X' as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as 'Y'.

1. X
2. L
3. N 
4. E
5. Y

Q.  In a certain code TRUMP is written SUTQN.  How is FIRED written in that code?

1. GJQEF
2. JGEQF
3. JQFEF
4. JGQFE
5. JGQEF 

Q. Which of the following bodies tightened the norms for foreign exchange risk cover in India mentioning that only companies with a networth of Rs 200 crore can use derivatives to hedge against risk of volatility in currency rates?

1. IMF
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. SEBI
4. Union Ministry of Finance

Q. Which body in India finally provided tax exemption on the 9.5 per cent interest income on PF deposits for 2010-11?

1. Reserve Bank of India
2. Income Tax Department
3. Employees’ Provident Fund Organization
4. Corporate Affairs Ministry

Q. 1.The report on Customer Service in Banks by a committee chaired by M. Damodaran, former Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that was released on 3 July 2011 recommended an increased deposit insurance cover of Rs.5 lakh so as to encourage individuals to keep all their deposits in banks.
2. The panel also suggested blocking of lost ATM cards through SMS and immediate restoration of funds in case of non-dispensation of cash at an ATM within 5 working days.
Which of the above is not true?

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 & 2
4. None of the above

Q. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?

1. 7%
2. 7.5%
3. 8%
4. 8.5%

Q. Which bank posted a 99 per cent drop in net profit at Rs 21 crore for the fourth quarter ended 31 March 2011 against Rs 1867 crore during the corresponding period in 2010?

1. Indian Overseas Bank
2. State Bank of India
3. Bank of India
4. United Bank of India

Q. Who did global payments processing company MasterCard appoint as the General Manager, South Asia and Country President, India?

1. T. V. Seshadri
2. Vicky Bindra
3. Tunde Lemo
4. Ajay Banga

Q. Government of India on 19 July 2011 appointed Usha Ananthasubramanian, former general manager of Bank of Baroda (BoB) as executive director of which public sector lender?

1. Central Bank of India
2. Punjab National Bank
3. United Bank of India
4. Gramin Bank

Q. Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray into the life insurance segment.

1. Syndicate Bank
2. Punjab National Bank
3. Corporation Bank
4. United Bank of India

Q. Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Dewan Housing Finance Corporation (DHFL) under which DHFL will distribute home loans to Yes Bank's customers?

1. Canara Bank
2. ABN Amro bank
3. Yes Bank
4. HSBC

Q. Which life insurance company in India launched a new non-linked health insurance plan, Jeevan Arogya?

1. HDFC Standard Life Insurance Co. Ltd
2. Life Insurance Corporation of India
3. IDBI Fortis Life Insurance Company Lt
4. SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd

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Institute Of Banking Personal Selection : IBPS Model Questions Answers

Institute Of Banking Personal Selection

IBPS Clerk Model Questions

1.Which one of the following foreign agencies will assist the municipal agencies to improve quality of municipal schools through its School Excellence Programmes (SEP) ?

1. IMF
2. UNDP
3. UNICEF
4. ADB
5. None of these

2.Which of the following carries out 'Open Market Operations'?

1. Finance Ministry
2. External Affairs Ministry
3. Reserve Bank of India
4. Planning Commission
5. Ministry of Commerce

3.Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the RBI issues directives to the Banks in India ?

1. RBI Act
2. Banking Regulation Act
3. Essential Commodities Act
4. RBI and Banking Regulation Act
5. None of these

4.Which one of the following tools is used by RBI for selective credit control ?

1. It advises banks to lend against certain commodities
2. It advises banks to recall the loans for advances against certain commodities
3. It advises banks to charge higher rate of interest for advance against certain commodities
4. It discourages certain kinds of lending by assigning higher risk weights to loans it deems undesirable
5. None of these

5.For which one of the following loan products 'teaser loans' are offered by Banks ?

1. Education Loans
2. Commercial Loans
3. Loans against security of gold
4. Retail Trade Loans
5. Home Loans

6.As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries (among the given) has highest literacy rate ?

1. India
2. Sri Lanka
3. China
4. Vietnam
5. Bangladesh

7.Which one of the following has decided to give guarantee for infra loans ?

1. IDBI
2. SBI 
3. IIFCL
4. SIDBI
5. None of these

8.In which one of the following States is the uranium project proposed to be set up ?

1. Manipur
2. Meghalaya
3. Orissa
4. Assam
5. Nagaland

9.What is 'Kaveri' ?

1. India's indigenous aircraft engine
2. India's low cost laptop
3. India's Air to Air Missile
4. India's guided Surface to Air Missile
5. Unmanned Aircraft acquired from Israel

10.An increasing finished good stock as % to sales of a manufacturing Company indicates that ----
i) the market is getting competitive
ii)the quality of the goods is not upto the mark
iii)the production cost has increased
iv)the production has decreased

1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (iii) and (iv)
4. Only (iii)
5. Only (iv) and (i)

11.In which one of the following States Sariska Tiger Reserve is located ?

1. M.P.
2. U.P.
3. Orissa
4. Gujarat
5. Rajasthan

12.Which one of the following may be the consequence of buying forex in the market by the RBI ?

1. Its leads to inflation
2. It lead to control over inflation
3. It does not affect inflation
4. It results into deflation
5. None of these

13.Under provisions of which one of the following Act, the Reserve Bank of India has the power to regulate, supervise and control the banking sector ?

1. RBI Act
2. Banking Regulation Act
3. Negotiable Instrument Act
4. RBI and Banking Regulation Act
5. None of these

14.Who amongst the following is the author of the book "The God of Small Things"?

1. Chetan Bhagat
2. V. S. Naipul
3. Namita Gokhale
4. Kiran Desai
5. Arundhati Roy

15.One of the following states is a major producer of spices -----

1. Karnataka
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Kerala
4. Gujarat
5. Manipur

16.The NAV of a mutual fund ----

1. is always constant
2. Keeps going up at a steady rate
3. Fluctuates with market price movements
4. Cannot go down at all
5. None of these

17.ASBA, a facility while applying/ submitting an application for purchase of shares under a public issue, is ------

1. Applications Simple Balance Amount
2. Amount Saved and Balance in Account
3. Already Savings Blocked Amount
4. Applications Supported by Blocked Amount
5. None of these

18.A Saving Bank Deposit Account is one where ------

1. Amounts are deposited and are withdrawn as per requirement of the customers
2. The deposits are made only once in a year
3. Periodical Fixed amount are deposited month wise and withdrawals are allowed after a fixed period
4. All the above
5. None of these

19.The expansion of CDMA is

1. Calculated Division of Many Applications
2. Computer Divided Multiple Access
3. Code Diversified Memory Applications
4. Code Division multiple Access
5. None of these

20.'Merdeka Cup' is associated with the game of ---------

1. Tennis
2. Hockey
3. Badminton
4. Cricket
5. Football

21.Which of the following is a financial asset ?

1. Gold
2. Silver
3. Shares in a demat account
4. Land & buildings
5. None of these

22.Zero balance account is generally allowed to be opened for -------

1. Salaried class
2. businessmen
3. foreign customers
4. children
5. Senior Citizens

23.Ten Rupee notes contain the signature of ----

1. Finance Secretary, GOI
2. Chairman, State Bank of India
3. Governor, Reserve Bank of India
4. Finance Minister
5. Prime Minister

24.Statue of Liberty is the national monument of ------

1. Italy
2. Australia
3. France
4. Denmark
5. USA

25.Loan against the security of immovable property is by executing an agreement of ----

1. Assignment
2. Pledge
3. Transfer
4. Mortgage
5. None of these

26.Credit Rating --------

1. is used to rate the borrowers while giving advances
2. is used to work out performance of the employees
3. is used to calculate the number of excellent audit rated branches
4. is NOT used in any Bank
5. is necessary before giving promotion to employees.

27.In Corporate Hedging, which one of the following types of risks can be covered ?

1. Liquidity risk
2. Currency risk
3. Credit risk
4. Transaction risk
5. None of these

28.Bank of Rajasthan is now merged with which of the following banks ?

1. AXIS Bank
2. IDBI Bank
3. ICICI Bank
4. HDFC Bank
5. None of these

29.Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation "IFRS" as used in corporate/finance sector ?

1. Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards
2. Interpretation and Formal Reporting System
3. International Financial Reporting Standards
4. International Financial Reporting System
5. None of these

30.As per the new guidelines issued by SEBI, companies are required to list shares within how many days of the closure of the initial Public Offers (IPOs) ?

1.  60 days
2.  12 days
3.  30 days
4.  45 days
5.  None of these

31.RTGS stands for ------

1. Real Time Gross Settlements
2. Reduced Time Gross Settlements
3. Relative Time Gross Settlements
4. Real Total gross Securities
5. None of these

32.The C. Rangarajan government committee was in news in October 2012 for having submitted its recommendations to the central government. Which recommendations did it make ?

1. complete decontrol of the sugar industry
2. stable trade policy and a moderate duty on imports and exports
3. outright ban or quantitative restrictions to be done away with
4. All of the above
5. None of these

33.As per the 2012 Global Hunger Index report released for the seventh year in October 2012 by the International Food policy Research Institute (IFPRI), Welthungerhilfe and Concern Worldwide, what is the per cent of children under five in India who are underweight ?

1. 36.3 per cent
2. 43.5 per cent
3. 55.2 per cent
4. 60 per cent
5. None of these

34.The British and the government of which territory/region on October 15, 2012 signed a historic deal that will to allow the latter to hold a referendum in 2014 on whether it wants to remain part of the United Kingdom or secede from the 300 - year-old political union ?

1. Wales
2. Falkland Islands
3. Scotland
4. Northern Ireland
5. None of these

35.The Asian Development Band (AD, in its Asian Development Outlook 2012 Update released in October 2012, lowered India's growth forecast for the current fiscal to what per cent, citing falling global demand and impact of delayed monsoon on agricultural production ?

1. 3.3 per cent
2. 4.4 per cent
3. 5.6 per cent
4. 6.1 per cent
5. None of these

36.Which of the following is/are not correct regarding the XII Plant (2012-17) which was approved by the Union Cabinet in October 2012 ?

1. The XII Plan seeks to achieve 4 per cent agriculture sector growth
2. The growth target for the manufacturing sector has been pegged at 10 per cent
3. The approved Plan document will now be placed before the National Development Council for final approval
4. It aims at achieving annual average economic growth rate of 9 per cent  
5. None of these

37.The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP), on October 18, 2012 estimated the Indian economy to grow at a slower pace during the current fiscal. What is its projection regarding India's growth rate ?

1. 5.5 per cent
2. 5.9 per cent
3. 6.2 per cent
4. 7.1 per cent
5. None of these

38.John Gurdon and Japanese physician Shinya Yamanaka, on October 8, 2012 won the 2012 Nobel Prize in Medicine for the "re-programming" of the fate of cells. Gurdon is a national of

1. Israel
2. France
3. Britain
4. USA
5. None of these

39.Nkosazana Dlamini-Zuma, in October, 2012, became the first woman to take office as the Chairperson of the African Union Commission (AU at the A.U. head-quarters in

1. Cape-Town
2. Durban
3. Addis Ababa
4. Kampala
5. None of these

40.Which of the following statements is correct regarding Dhanush missile which made headlines in October 2012 ?

1. It has a strike range of up to 350 km and can carry 500 kg of conventional or nuclear warhead
2. it is a single stage missile and has been developed by the DRDO
3. It is about 8.53 metre in length and 0.9 metre in diameter and uses liquid propellant
4. All of the above
5. None of these

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