Food Corporation Of India Examination : Management Trainee reasoning Solved Questions

Food Corporation Of India Examination

MT (General/Depot) Reasoning Question Paper

1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON

1. (A) KKK
2. (B) JKI
3. (C) HJH
4. (D) IKL

2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?

1. (A) Script
2. (B) Pen
3. (C) Paper
4. (D) Book

3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?

1. (A) Furniture
2. (B) Forest
3. (C) Fire
4. (D) Carpenter

4. acme : mace :: alga: ?

1. (A) glaa
2. (B) gaal
3. (C) laga
4. (D) gala

5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?

1. (A) UTOPTU
2. (B) UOTUPT
3. (C) TUOUTP
4. (D) TUOTUP

6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—

1. (A) Teacher
2. (B) School
3. (C) Student
4. (D) Tuition

7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?

1. (A) C
2. (B) D
3. (C) E
4. (D)G

8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20

1. (A) 11
2. (B) 10
3. (C) 8
4. (D) 9

9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?

1. (A) IYZ
2. (B) HWX
3. (C) IWX
4. (D) JWX

10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?

1. (A) 48
2. (C) 52
3. (B) 49
4. (D) 56

Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three.
11.

1. (A) Bokaro
2. (B) Jamshedpur
3. (C) Bhilai
4. (D) Agra

12.

1. (A) January
2. (B) February
3. (C) July
4. (D) December

13.

1. (A) Bible
2. (B) Panchsheel
3. (C) Geeta
4. (D) Quran

14.

1. (A) Star
2. (B) Sun
3. (C) Sky
4. (D) Moon

Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.

15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left?

1. (A) N
2. (B) L
3. (C) O
4. (D) None of these

16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left?

1. (A) V
2. (B) T
3. (C) W
4. (D) Y

17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?

1. (A) V
2. (B) X
3. (C) W
4. (D) I

Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

18.

1. (A) Green
2. (B) Red
3. (C) Colour
4. (D) Orange

19.

1. (A) Rabbit
2. (B) Crocodile
3. (C) Earthworm
4. (D) Snail

20.

1. (A) Polo
2. (B) Chess
3. (C) Ludo
4. (D) Carrom

21.

1. (A) Sun
2. (B) Universe
3. (C) Moon
4. (D) Star

22.

1. (A) Cheese
2. (B) Milk
3. (C) Curd
4. (D) Ghee

23.

1. (A) Carrot
2. (B) Radish
3. (C) Potato
4. (D) Brinjal

24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code?

1. (A) NOITIBIHORP
2. (B) IHORPBITION
3. (C) ITIONBIHOTP
4. (D) IHORPBNOITI

25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?

1. (A) VSS
2. (B) URR
3. (C) VTT
4. (D) UTF

26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—

1. (A) CBIECD
2. (B) CIBCED
3. (C) CBICED
4. (D) CIBECD

27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—

1. (A) 213310
2. (B) 213301
3. (C) 123301
4. (D) 012334

28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?

1. (A) Blue
2. (B) Fish
3. (C) Rain
4. (D) Pink

29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?

1. (A) East
2. (B) West
3. (C) North
4. (D) South

30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?

1. (A) East
2. (B) West
3. (C) North
4. (D) South

31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?

1. (A) Manish
2. (B) Pushpa
3. (C) Namita
4. (D) Nageena

32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks?

1. (A) Meena
2. (B) Rupali
3. (C) Raj
4. (D) None of these

33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?

1. (A) Sister in law
2. (B) Grand daughter
3. (C) Daughter in law
4. (D) None of these

34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?

1. (A) Uncle—Nephew
2. (B) Father—Daughter
3. (C) Father—Son
4. (D) Grandfather—Grandson

35. An Application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk?

1. (A) Tuesday
2. (B) Earlier week’s Saturday
3. (C) Wednesday
4. (D) Monday

36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?

1. (A) 2 : 20 a.m.
2. (B) 3 : 30 a.m.
3. (C) 3 : 55 p.m.
4. (D) 3 : 20 p.m.

37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?

1. (A) 44
2. (B) 40
3. (C) 50
4. (D) 55

38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left?

1. (A) 21st
2. (B) 19th
3. (C) 23rd
4. (D) 20th

39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8

1. (A) One
2. (B) Two
3. (C) Three
4. (D) Four

40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6

1. (A) One
2. (B) Two
3. (C) Three
4. (D) Four

41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—

1. (A) MENOPM
2. (B) MENOMP
3. (C) NJOGPM
4. (D) MNJOPM

42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded in the same manner as—

1. (A) CJCEFQPYWC
2. (B) CJGERQTYVG
3. (C) CNCERQPCRG
4. (D) GJGAVMTYVC

43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..

1. (A) Drink
2. (B) Fish
3. (C) Wash
4. (D) Swim

44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………

1. (A) Injure
2. (B) Peel
3. (C) Prick
4. (D) Attack

45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row?

1. (A) 26
2. (B) 32
3. (C) 24
4. (D) 35

46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?

1. (A) 26
2. (B) 12
3. (C) 10
4. (D) 33

47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to …….

1. (A) Education
2. (B) Teacher
3. (C) Student
4. (D) Class

48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to………

1. (A) Coin
2. (B) Money
3. (C) Cheque
4. (D) Rupee

49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………

1. (A) Ear
2. (B) Hearing
3. (C) Noise
4. (D) Commotion

50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………

1. (A) Present
2. (B) Future
3. (C) Today
4. (D) Hopeless

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection : Download Clerk PO Solved Question Papers

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection

IBPS PO/ Clerk Solved Sample Question Papers

Q. RBI, in its annual policy for 2011-12, has estimated the wholesale price inflation at about which among the following fractions by March 2012?

1. 5%
2. 6%
3. 8%
4. 9%

Q. Who amongst the following was India’s official candidate for the post of UNO’s Secretary Gene- ral ?

1. Mr. Shyam Saran
2. Dr. Rangarajan
3. Mr. Shashi Tharoor
4. Mr. Vijay Nambiar
5. None of these

Q. In India Census is done after a gap of every____________

1. Five years
2. Seven years
3. Eight years
4. Ten years
5. Fifteen years

Q. Which of the following pheno-menon is considered responsible for ‘Global Warming’?

1. Greenhouse Gas Effect
2. Fox Fire
3. Dry Farming
4. Radioactivity
5. None of these

Q. Which of the following Satellites recently dedicated to nation helps Direct to Home Television Service in India ?

1. Matsat
2. Edusat
3. Insat–4b
4. Insat–IB
5. None of these

Q. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently raised the interest rate on savings bank deposits and the repo rate by 50 basis points (bps). In this context, consider the following:
1. CASA Ratio
2. Net Interest Margin
Which among the above of the commercial banks would be affected by the above step taken by the Reserve Bank of India ?

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 & 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called?

1. FDI
2. Portfolio Investment
3. NRI Investment
4. Foreign Indirect Investment

Q. In which year, the World Bank revised the common international poverty line to $1.25 at the 2005 purchasing power parity?

1. 2006
2. 2007
3. 2008
4. 2009

Q. As per the recent estimates, India’s overall foodgrain production is expected to be 241.56 million tonnes, which is highest ever. Which among the following shares the maximum quantity in this ?

1. Rice
2. Wheat
3. Coarse cereals
4. Maize

Q. Recently RBI governor D Subbarao has pointed out that “recent global macro economic developments pose some risks to domestic growth.” What does he refer to by using the term “domestic growth”?

1. Per Capita Income
2. Gross Domestic Product
3. Net National product
4. Net National Product per capita

Q.  Lending rates are expected to rise further in the coming months because the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to ………………….. Which among the following would fill the space correctly?

1. Increase policy rates
2. Decrease Policy Rates
3. Conduct Open Market Operations
4. Conduct Repo Auctions

Q . Recently we read in the newspapers that in the country , there are undoubtedly, negative risks to the fiscal deficit target of 4.6 per cent for 2011-12. Which among the following does not poses such risk to the fiscal deficit targets?

1. The higher Fuels, Food and Fertilizers prices
2. Burden of Subsidy
3. Low collection of Tax Revenue
4. Lower external commercial borrowings

Q. What was the initial growth target of the Eleventh Plan (2007-08 to 2011-12) on an average a year?

1. 7%
2. 8%
3. 9%
4. 10%

Q. In the first four years of the Eleventh Plan, Indian economy expanded by which among the following fractions?

1. 8.15%
2. 8.30%
3. 8.45%
4. 8.65%

Q. OPEC is a group of countries which are_______

1. exporting oil
2. producting cotton
3. rich and developed
4. developing and poor
5. nuclear powers

Q. Recently we read in the newspapers that World Bank has now endorsed a longstanding proposal that governments should impose a carbon levy. What is Carbon Levy?

1. It’s a tax levied on jet and shipping fuel to finance climate change mitigation
2. It’s a tax levied on carbon fuel
3. It’s a tax levied on production of fossil fuel and coal
4. It’s a tax levied on production of coal only

Q. Sandhyarani Devi Wangkhem, was a winner of a Silver Medal in the 2010 Asian Games in Guangzhou , China . In which sports she won this medal?

1. Shooting
2. Taekwando
3. Squash
4. Wushu

Q. ASBA (application Supported by Blocked Amounts) is a term used in which of the following sectors?

1. Aviation
2. Real Estate
3. Insurance
4. Capital Markets

Q. Which of the following started production at India’s largest naphtha cracker project recently?

1. ONGC
2. Essar Oil
3. Indian Oil
4. Reliance Industries Ltd

Q. Which of the following is/are correctly matched after RBI’s ‘Third Quarter Review of Monetary Policy 2010-11’ on January 26, 2011?
I. Repo rate – 6.5%
II. Reserve Repo rate – 5.5%
III. Cash Reserve Ratio – 6%

1. I only
2. I and II only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

Q. The union finance Ministry raised the tax collection target for 2010-11 to _________ recently.

1. Rs 782000 crore
2. Rs 834000 crore
3. Rs 871000 crore
4. Rs 902000 crore

Q. Which of the following became the first oil & Gas Company to find shale gas deposits in India recently?

1. Reliance Industries Ltd.
2. Carin India
3. Essar Oil
4. ONGC

Q .Who among the following has been recently appointed as chairman of Central Board of Direct Taxes?

1. Prakash Chandra
2. Sudhir Chandra
3. Satyanand Mishra
4. Sri Kumar

Q. According to the state-wise cotton crop data released by the Agriculture Ministry for 2010-11 on 25 July 2011 which variety of cotton emerged as the largest cotton crop in all the major cotton producing states?

1. V-797
2. RS2013
3. Digvijay
4. Bt cotton

Q. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?

1. 7%
2. 7.5%
3. 8%
4. 8.5%

Q. The Union government on 26 July 2011 announced restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme for export of cotton. Which of the following is/are not true with regard to the following?
1. Restoration of the popular duty entitlement pass book (DEPB) scheme was announced for export of cotton with retrospective effect from 1 April 2011 and on cotton yarn from 1 October 2010.
2. Cotton yarn had been placed under Open General License for exports from 1 October 2011.
3. Exports of cotton were dis-incentivized by virtue of export tax, following a sharp rise in prices in January 2011.
4. Restrictions continue to remain on export of cotton, that is, 65 lakh bales this year.

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 & 2
4. Only 4

Q .Who among the following had written the books “Reintegrating India with the World Economy’ and ‘Understanding Reforms’.?

1. C Rangrajan
2. Amartya Sen
3. Suresh Tendulkar
4. C K Prahalad

Q. As per the recent Data released by the Central Statistical Organization, what is India ’s Per capita income in 2010-11?

1. Rs. 54835
2. Rs. 52165
3. Rs. 56115
4. Rs. 50143

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Exam : Download IBPS PO Clerk Solved Papers

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Exam
PO/ Clerk Solved Question Papers 

Q. Buffer is device/storage area–

1. Where data are temporarily stored
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–

1. Car Topology
2. Bus Topology
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. An error in a computer program is referred as–

1. Bug
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–

1. Car
2. Bus
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–

1. Byte
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. Cache memory is a–

1. Small buffer storage
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–

1. Number system
2. Base
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. Cache memory is–

1. Smaller and faster than main storage
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

Q. Cache memory–

1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both above are true .
4. Both above are false
5. None of these

Q. Following is false for BASIC–

1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language
5. None of these

Q. A unit for measuring data transmission speed that describes the capacity of a carrier is referred as–

1. Baud
2. Bit
3. Bond
4. All of the above
5. Batch

Q. A process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally manufactured/developed–

1. Alpha test
2. Beta Test
3. Gamma test
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A selection, choice, or condition involving two possibilities is referred as–

1. Unary
2. Binary
3. Octal
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. Base band System is–

1. A networking system
2. Where the channel support a single digital signal
3. above are true
4. All of the above
5. None is true

Q. One of the early coding systems, based on the idea of converting each digit of a decimal number into its binary equivalent rather than converting the entire decimal value into a pure binary form is–

1. ASCII code
2. BCD
3. ASCII-8
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. In Batch processing–

1. Several computer programs runs one after another without human interaction to run each program individually
2. Several computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
3. Selected computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
4. All of the above
5. None is true

Q. BISYNC is–

1. Binary synchronous
2. A process of transmitting data
3. A half-duplex, character oriented, synchronous data communication transmission method
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A device that is used to transmit data from one location to another is referred as–

1. Storage
2. Memory
3. Carrier
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. Programs developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine readable form is known as–

1. Canned programs
2. Beta program
3. Alpha program
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A binary numbers are represented by–

1. Digits 0 and 1
2. Digits 0, 1, ..., 8
3. Digits AB, C,...
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. BIOS is responsible for

1. Handling the particulars of input/output operations
2. Output operations
3. Input operations
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. BIOS is an abbreviation for–

1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. BISYNC is an abbreviation for–

1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. The overall design, construction, organization and interconnecting of the various components of a computer system is referred as–

1. Computer Architecture
2. Computer Flowchart
3. Computer Algorithm
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Q. A number system with a base of two is referred as–

1. Uniary number system
2. Binary number system
3. Octal number system
4. All of the above
5. None of these

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection : Download IBPS Solved Question Papers

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection

IBPS PO/Clerk Solved Question Paper

Q.963 + 560 ÷ 35 = ?

1. 45
2. 981
3. 870
4. 43
5. None of these 

Q. 14400 ÷ 64 ÷ 9 = ?

1. 27
2. 23
3. 29
4. 21
5. None of these

Q. 14.8 × 12.3 × 8.6 = ?

1. 1555.454
2. 1535.445
3. 1545.545
4. 1565.544
5. None of these

Q. 45% of 720 = 30% of ?

1. 960
2. 1080
3. 1240
4. 820
5. None of these

Q. 3 1/6 + 4 2/3 - 1 1/4 = ?

1. 4 1/6
2. 6 2/9
3. 6 7/12
4. 5 1/9
5. None of these

Q. 63251 + 52894 = ? + 37624

1. 87812
2. 67281
3. 76821
4. 78521
5. None of these

Q.  7 2/7 of 189 + 452 = 2000 - ?

1. 183
2. 164
3. 170
4. 198
5. None of these 

Q. 68% of 595 - 43% of 372 = ?

1. 244.64
2. 232.84
3. 278.44
4. 260.24
5. None of these

Q. 35% of (?) = 2175.95

1. 6712
2. 6217
3. 6127
4. 6721
5. None of these

Q. ? ÷ 52 × 12 = 252

1. 1242
2. 992
3. 1142
4. 1346
5. None of these 

Q. (45)2 + (21)2 = (?)2 + 257

1. 51
2. 49
3. 45
4. 47
5. None of these

Q. 90780 ÷ v? = 85 × 12

1. 89
2. 7921 
3. 7569
4. 87
5. None of these

Q. 1862 ÷ 28 = ?

1. 66.5
2. 67
3. 64.5
4. 69
5. None of these

Q. 63% of 962 + ? = 999

1. 346.92
2. 368.64
3. 392.94
4. 402.68
5. None of these

Q. 743 + 958 = ?% of 5670

1. 34
2. 26
3. 30
4. 22
5. None of these

Q. v5929 = ?

1. 77
2. 83
3. 87
4. 93
5. None of these

Q. 638 + 254 ÷ 8 × 4 = ?

1. 646
2. 545
3. 446
4. 765
5. None of these

Q. 65% of 400 + v? = 44% of 800-12% of 400

1. 1936
2. 44
3. 2116
4. 46
5. None of these

Q. 18 × 14 + 46    = ?
      16 × 10 - 23

1. 1 1/2
2. 2 24/137
3. 4 37/138
4. 3 32/173
5. None of these

Q. 8 × 5 + (?)2 = (11)2

1. 81
2. 6561
3. 9
4. 27
5. None of these

Q. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
1    4    14    45    139    422    ?

1. 1268
2. 1234
3. 1272
4. 1216
5. None of these

Q. 38 per cent of first number is 52 per cent of the second number. What is the respective ratio of the first number to the second number?

1. 5 : 4
2. 16 : 9
3. 26 : 19
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these

Q. What is the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 12,000 at the rate of 10 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years?

1. Rs. 3,972
2. Rs. 2,567
3. Rs. 4,780
4. Rs. 5,609
5. None of these

Q. The average age of a man and his son is 54 years. The ratio of their ages is 23 : 13 respectively. What will be ratio of their ages after 6 years?

1. 10 : 7
2. 5 : 3
3. 4 : 3
4. 3 : 2
5. None of these

Q. A single person takes 3 minutes to write a letter. If from 10 a.m. to 12.00 noon, 1960 letters are to be written, how many persons should be employed on this job?

1. 53
2. 47
3. 51
4. 49 
5. None of these

Q. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 9,530 at the end of 6 years is Rs 2,859. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a?

1. 5
2. 7
3. 9
4. 11
5. None of these

Q. The cost of 10 Chairs and 15 Tables is Rs. 15,525. What is the cost of 8 Chairs and 12 Tables?

1. Rs. 13,560
2. Rs. 12,420
3. Rs. 14,840
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these

Q. The owner of a Gift shop charges his customer 28% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 1,408 for some Soft toys, then what was the cost price of those Soft toys?

1. Rs. 1,300
2. Rs. 1,000
3. Rs. 1,200
4. Rs. 1,400
5. None of these

Q. A plot of 715 sq ft is available at the rate of Rs 3,850 per sq ft. If 40% of the total cost of the plot is to be paid for booking the plot, how much is the booking amount?

1. Rs. 11,10,000
2. Rs. 11,01,100
3. Rs. 11,01,000
4. Rs. 11,00,100
5. None of these

Q. If the product of two successive positive integers is 3192, which is the smaller integer?

1. 52
2. 58
3. 54
4. 56
5. None of these

Q. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
59.786 ÷ 14.444 × 8.321 = ?

1. 49
2. 58
3. 22
4. 66
5. None of these 

Q. A sum of money is divided among A, B, C and D in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 7 : 11 respectively. If the share of C is Rs. 1,351, then what is the total amount of money of A and D together?

1. Rs. 2,123
2. Rs. 2,316
3. Rs. 2,565
4. Rs. 2,895
5. None of these

Q. Mr Madhur deposits an amount of Rs. 58,750 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 12 p.c.p.a for 4 years. What total amount will Mr Madhur get at the end of 4 years?

1. Rs. 91,230
2. Rs. 86,950
3. Rs. 74,760
4. Rs. 69,540
5. None of these

Q. If an amount of Rs. 96,393 is distributed equally amongest 33 children. How much amount would each child get?

1. Rs. 2,789
2. Rs. 2,563
3. Rs. 2,860
4. Rs. 2,921 
5. None of these

Q. The difference between 73% of a number and 58% of the same number is 960. What is 22% of that number?

1. 1408
2. 1232
3. 1324
4. 1536
5. None of these

Q. One-seventh of a number is 39. What will be 56% of that number?

1. 164.66
2. 152.88
3. 178.22
4. 182.44
5. None of these

Q. In a class of 55 students and 3 teachers, each student got sweets that are 20% of the total number of students and each teacher got sweets that are 60% of the total number of students. How many sweets were there?

1. 737
2. 671
3. 714
4. 638
5. None of these 

Q. If (108)2 is added to the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 13033. What is the number?

1. 33
2. 43
3. 37
4. 47
5. None of these

Q. In an examination it is required to get 350 of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 32% marks and is declared failed by 70 marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?

1. 885
2. 865
3. 875
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these

Q. Which number should replace both the question marks in the following equation?
  ?      =   97
388          ?

1. 222
2. 196
3. 206
4. 178
5. None of these 

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Institute of Banking Personnel Selection : IBPS Solved Question Papers

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection

PO/ Clerk Solved Question Papers

Q. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ADIC using each letter only once in each word?

1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three

Q . Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which is the one that does not belong to that group?

1. Violin
2. Harp
3. Guitar
4. Flute
5. Sitar

Q.  In a certain language 'give me more' is coded as '7 3 5', 'she has more' is coded as '9 7 1' and 'she asked me gently' is coded as '6 3 2 1'. Which of the following is the code for 'give' in that language?

1. 5
2. 7
3. 6
4. 9
5. 1

Q.  If each of the vowels in the word GOLIATHS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be sixth from the left of the new arrangement thus formed?

1. S
2. P
3. G
4. J
5. F

Q.  In a certain language 'WEAK' is coded as 4$9ß' and REST' is coded as 7$8#' and 'WREK' is ceded as '4$ß7'. How will 'KEWRA' be coded in the same code?

1. 7 4 $ ß #
2. ß 7 $ 8 #
3. # ß 9 7 4
4. $ ß 7  9 4  
5. 4 7 8  ß $

Q.  How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FORMATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?

1. None
2. One
3. Two 
4. Three
5. More than three

Q.  If the digits in the number 79246358 are arranged in descending order from left to right, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left in the new arrangement?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4 
5. 5

Q. 'Music' is related to 'Notes' in the same way as 'Language' is related to _____

1. Sentences
2. Combination
3. Grammar
4. Alphabets 
5. Syntax

Directions  : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow :
If 'P * Q means 'P is the mother of Q'.
If 'P x Q' means 'P is the father of Q'.
If 'P + Q' means 'P is the sister  of Q'.
If 'P - Q' means 'P is the brother of Q'.
If 'P > Q' means 'P is the son of Q'.
If 'P < Q' means 'P is the daughter of Q'.

Q. In the expression 'A x B + R > S' how is S related to A?

1. Daughter
2. Son
3. Niece
4. Nephew
5. Cannot be determined

Q.Which of the following means P is the father of S ?

1. P x Q < R * S 
2. R x P < Q - S
3. R + S > Q + P
4. S + Q - R * P
5. Cannot be determined

Q. In the expression 'P + Q> A - B' how is P related to B?

1. Daughter
2. Son
3. Niece  
4. Nephew
5. Cannot be determined

Q.  Which of the following means D is the aunt of C?

1. D > B * A * C
2. D + B - C * A  
3. D - B - A x C
4. D + B x A x C
5. None of these

Q.. In the expression 'W > X < Y  * Z 'how is W related to Z?

1. Nephew  
2. Uncle
3. Son
4. Brother-in-law
5. None of these

Q.  If  it is possible to mark only one meaningful word with the first, fourth, fifth and tenth letters of the word TELEVISION, which of the fallowing would be the second letter of that word from the right end? If no such word can be made, give 'X' as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as 'Y'.

1. X
2. L
3. N 
4. E
5. Y

Q.  In a certain code TRUMP is written SUTQN.  How is FIRED written in that code?

1. GJQEF
2. JGEQF
3. JQFEF
4. JGQFE
5. JGQEF 

Q. Which of the following bodies tightened the norms for foreign exchange risk cover in India mentioning that only companies with a networth of Rs 200 crore can use derivatives to hedge against risk of volatility in currency rates?

1. IMF
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. SEBI
4. Union Ministry of Finance

Q. Which body in India finally provided tax exemption on the 9.5 per cent interest income on PF deposits for 2010-11?

1. Reserve Bank of India
2. Income Tax Department
3. Employees’ Provident Fund Organization
4. Corporate Affairs Ministry

Q. 1.The report on Customer Service in Banks by a committee chaired by M. Damodaran, former Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that was released on 3 July 2011 recommended an increased deposit insurance cover of Rs.5 lakh so as to encourage individuals to keep all their deposits in banks.
2. The panel also suggested blocking of lost ATM cards through SMS and immediate restoration of funds in case of non-dispensation of cash at an ATM within 5 working days.
Which of the above is not true?

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 & 2
4. None of the above

Q. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what percentage?

1. 7%
2. 7.5%
3. 8%
4. 8.5%

Q. Which bank posted a 99 per cent drop in net profit at Rs 21 crore for the fourth quarter ended 31 March 2011 against Rs 1867 crore during the corresponding period in 2010?

1. Indian Overseas Bank
2. State Bank of India
3. Bank of India
4. United Bank of India

Q. Who did global payments processing company MasterCard appoint as the General Manager, South Asia and Country President, India?

1. T. V. Seshadri
2. Vicky Bindra
3. Tunde Lemo
4. Ajay Banga

Q. Government of India on 19 July 2011 appointed Usha Ananthasubramanian, former general manager of Bank of Baroda (BoB) as executive director of which public sector lender?

1. Central Bank of India
2. Punjab National Bank
3. United Bank of India
4. Gramin Bank

Q. Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray into the life insurance segment.

1. Syndicate Bank
2. Punjab National Bank
3. Corporation Bank
4. United Bank of India

Q. Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Dewan Housing Finance Corporation (DHFL) under which DHFL will distribute home loans to Yes Bank's customers?

1. Canara Bank
2. ABN Amro bank
3. Yes Bank
4. HSBC

Q. Which life insurance company in India launched a new non-linked health insurance plan, Jeevan Arogya?

1. HDFC Standard Life Insurance Co. Ltd
2. Life Insurance Corporation of India
3. IDBI Fortis Life Insurance Company Lt
4. SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd

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