IBPS Quantitative Aptitude Previous Year Questions

IBPS Clerk Examination

Quantitative Aptitude Solved Questions

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?

• 30 minutes
• 25 minutes
• 28 minutes
• 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?

• 4096
• 8192
• 512
• 1024

3. Find the number missing at question mark:
10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149

• 100
• 103
• 78
• 128

4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from 'Trivandrum' and reaches 'Attingal' in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?

• 34 minutes
• 36 minutes
• 38 minutes
• 40 minutes

5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?

• 12
• 9
• 7
• 6

6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?

• 4
• 6
• 9
• 18

7. One fourth percent of 180 is:

• 4.5
• 0.45
• 0.045
• 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?

• 100
• 200
• 180
• 150

9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135

• 16
• 15
• 17
• 14

10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?

• 16.67
• 20
• 23
• 17

11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is .

• 1:40
• 1:4000
• 9:10
• 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?

• 204
• 250
• 240
• 210

13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?

• 25
• 00
• 75
• 50

14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?

• 30 seconds
• 36 seconds
• 20 seconds
• 18 seconds

15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be .

• 90 seconds
• 70 seconds
• 60 seconds
• 100 seconds

16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?

• Rs. 30
• Rs. 24
• Rs. 36
• Rs. 40

17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?

• 5
• 8
• 10
• 6

18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers

• 5050
• 5005
• 9900
• 9050

19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:

• 12m
• 5m
• 13m
• 11m

20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?

• 4
• 8
• 16
• 2

21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ..

• x1 = + 3, x2 = -3
• x1 = 3, x2 = 3
• x1 = -3, x2 = -3
• No solution

22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?

• 2/3
• 1/6
• 1/3
• d) 1/2

23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?

• 10%
• 7.5%
• 16%
• 15%

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number

• 10
• 11
• 9
• 5

25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM

• 900
• 1200
• 1500
• 2400

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in

• 20 minute
• 25 minutes
• 7 minutes 30 seconds
• 10 minutes

27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats

• 1 minutes
• 10 minute
• 100 minutes
• 10000 minutes

28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:

• 250
• 750
• 400
• 300

29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?

• 6 days
• 7 days
• 10 days
• 8 days

30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?

• 25
• 28
• 26
• 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?

• 33 1/8 %
• 66 2/3 %
• 25 %
• 50 %

32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:

• 7,200m2
• 15,000m2
• 54,000m2
• 13,500m2

33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?

• 1.5
• 1.0
• 2.5
• 2.0

34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?

• 400
• 500
• 475
• 450

35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the

• Interior of the triangle
• Midpoint of the diameter
• Exterior of the triangle
• Midpoint of the side of the triangle

36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?

• 360
• 90
• 270
• 180

37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?

• Circumcentre
• Centroid
• Orthocenter
• Incentre

38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is 'r' what is its slant height?

• 3r
• 4r
• 5r
• ?3r

39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?

• 4:9
• 2:3
• 8:27
• 4:6

40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3?2, 6, 6?2 ?

• 3
• 2
• ?2
• ?3

41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?

• 25
• 30
• 50
• 45

42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?

• 3 km/hr
• 4 km/hr
• 4.5 km/hr
• 5 km/hr

43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?

• 20
• 26
• 30
• 32

44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.

• 48 sq.cm
• 34 sq.cm
• 24 sq.cm
• 42 sq.cm

45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54,

• 81
• 69
• 63
• 57

46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:

• 20
• 22
• 25
• 30

47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =

• 5
• 2
• 6
• 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30

• 800
• 600
• 1050
• 750

49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?

• 306
• 765
• 700
• 510

50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:

• 36
• 37
• 38
• 31

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IBPS Specialist Officers Examination II Professional Knowledge Solved Paper II

Institute Of Banking Personal Solution Examination
Specialist Officer Exam Held on 02.02.2016

Professional Knowledge Solved Question Paper

1. A tangible product that the consumer feels comfortable purchasing without gathering additional information and then actually buys with minimum of effort is termed a(n)–

• Shopping good 
• Convenience good 
• Business product 
• Specially good
• Unsought good

2. The process of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers who have different needs, characteristics or behaviors and who might require separate products or marketing programs is called–

• Market segmentation 
• Market positioning 
• Market differentiation 
• Market targeting 
• Marketing mix

3. ………. is not a stage of product life cycle in marketing.

• Introduction 
• Maturity 
• Growth 
• Decline 
• Planning

4. ………which of the following is not a characteristic important in influencing an innovator's rate of adoption?

• Organization type of the innovator 
• Compatibility 
• Divisibility 
• Communicability 
• Complexity

5. The financial contracts whose values are obtained from the values of underlying assets are–

• mortgage 
• commercial papers 
• stocks 
• derivatives 
• bonds

6. All of the following are considered to be broad market-follower strategies except–

• innovator 
• imitator 
• cloner 
• counterteller 
• adapter

7. A company has four choices when it comes to developing brands. Which one of the following is not one among them?

• New brands 
• Multi brands 
• Brand extension 
• Line extension 
• Brand sponsoring

8. ………. is a demand state where consumer may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing model.

• Declining demand 
• Irregular demand 
• Negative demand 
• Non-existent demand 
• Latent demand

9. ………. is the development, design and implementation of marketing programme, processes and activities that recognizes the breadth and inter-dependencies of today's marketing environment.

• Niche marketing 
• Supply chain marketing 
• Holistic marketing 
• Relationship marketing 
• Demand-centred marketing

10. The ………. holds that marketing strategy should deliver value to customers in a way that maintain or improve both the consumer's and society's well-being.

• societal marketing concept 
• society centered marketing 
• customer centered marketing
• focused business model 
• production centered business

11. Major oil producers carryon oil exploration, oil drilling, oil refining, chemical manufacture and service-station operation. When an organization does all of these separate tasks distribution channel they can be said to have achieved what is called–

• Parallel marketing 
• Horizontal integration 
• Vertical integration
• Concentric integration 
• Conglomerate marketing

12. Which of the following describes the tendency of people to interpret information in a way that will support what they already believe?

• Selective creativity 
• Selective distortion 
• Selective matching
• Selective attraction
• Selective attribute

13. The ………. stage of a product is characterized as being one where there is period of rapid climb in sales and substantial profit improvement.

• introduction 
• decline 
• maturity 
• saturation 
• growth

14. The discomfort caused by post purchase conflict is called–

• Dissatisfaction 
• Cognitive dissonance 
• Post purchase behaviour 
• Buyer's remorse 
• Comparative tension

15. ………. is the study of how individuals, groups and organizations select, buy, use and dispose of goods, services, ideas or experiences to satisfy their needs and wants.

• Psychology 
• Product differentiation 
• Psychographic segmentation 
• Target marketing 
• Consumer behavior

16. Mutual Funds are regulated in the country by–

• IRDAI 
• Association of Mutual Funds of India (AMFI) 
• NABARD
• Securities and Exchange Board of India 
• Reserve Bank of India

17. Situation in which a firm introduces new products to stimulate sales but the profit comes at the expense of other products sold by that firm is called–

• repositioning 
• push marketing 
• differentiated marketing 
• cannibalization 
• cartelization

18. Cultivating opinion leaders and getting them to spread information about a product or service to others in their communities is–

• Buzz marketing 
• Leader marketing
• Niche marketing 
• Complex marketing 
• Selective marketing

19. Marketing management is defined as–

• monitoring the profitability of the' company's products and services 
• the art and science of choosing target markets and building profitable relationships with them
• managing the market process 
• developing marketing strategies to move the company forward
• selecting target markets to deploy marketers

20. The measure of the brand's ability to capture consumer performance and loyalty is termed as–

• Brand superiority 
• Brand equity 
• Brand version 
• Brand loyalty 
• Brand preference

21. Mission statements are at their best when they reflect a ………. to an almost impossible dream that provides direction for the next 10 to 30 years.

• market 
• strength 
• competency
• vision 
• value

22. A strategy in which the initial price of the product is set low in relation to the target market's range of expected prices is termed as–

• Market skimming pricing 
• Old pricing 
• Discount market pricing
• Market penetration pricing 
• Special market pricing

23. A group of tradition bound consumers who are the tool to adapt an innovation is called as–

• Challengers 
• Leaders 
• Innovators 
• Laggards 
• Loyal agents

24. Low prices on products for which you have accurate price knowledge lets you know that the product has to be a bargain. This type of pricing is termed as–

• Reference pricing 
• Psychological pricing 
• Volume pricing 
• Promotional pricing 
• Signpost pricing

25. The want satisfying power of a product is called its–

• price 
• utility 
• bond 
• purpose 
• goal

26. Based on the rates firms charge in the target market in a specific industry, they are classified as following except in a–

• Market challenger 
• Market plotter 
• Market leader 
• Market nicher 
• Market follower

27. TQM approach in which all the people of the company are involved in constantly improving the performance of products, services and business processes. TQM stands for–

• Total Quality Management 
• Total Quality Marketing 
• Total Quantity Management
• Total Queries Management 
• Total Quality Manipulation

28. When backed by buying power, wants become

• self-esteem needs 
• demand 
• exchanges 
• physical needs 
• social needs

29. The philosophy of product centered marketing' concept is–

• right products for the customers 
• make and sell 
• make what the market wants
• sense and respond 
• selling on product benefits

30. The customer's evaluation of the difference between all the benefits and all the costs of a market offering relative to those of competing offers is called

• Customer perceived value 
• Customer expectation 
• Customer satisfaction
• Customer loyalty 
• Customer relationship

31. Button market is where–

• capital is disposed 
• gold is purchased and sold 
• shares are purchased
• production of silver takes place 
• investment are made

32. Especially in large firms, a sales force frequently is specialized in some organizational fashion. Which of the following is not one of such specializations?

• Customer specialization 
• Major accounts specialization 
• Product specialization
• Geographic specialization 
• Economic order specialization

33. Greater consumer control means that, in building customer relationships, companies can no longer rely on marketing by intrusion. The most practiced marketing is–

• conversion 
• delivery 
• retention 
• attraction 
• attention

34. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, sense of belonging is grouped in–

• Esteem needs 
• Social needs 
• Safety needs 
• Physiological needs 
• Self-actualization needs

35. Michael Porter has identified five forces that determine the intrinsic long-run attractiveness of a market segment. Which of the following would not be among Porter's five forces?

• Threat of buyers' growing bargaining power 
• Threat of substitute products 
• Threat of technological partners
• Threat of intense segment rivalry 
• Threat of new entrants

36. The unplanned static or distortion during the communication process, which results in the receivers' getting a different message then the one that the sender sent is the–

• response 
• feedback 
• noise 
• decoding 
• encoding

37. If-a MNC like Nestle varied the elements of the marketing mix to suit the countries in which it sold its products, which type of strategy would it be following?

• Differentiated 
• Undifferentiated 
• Standardized 
• Adapted 
• Concentrated

38. Under which of the following company orientations toward the market place would we expect to get 'better economical' falacy?

• Marketing concept 
• Holistic marketing concept 
• Production concept
• Selling concept 
• Product concept

39. If a company focuses on only one or a few market segments instead of small share of a large market, the same is–

• Segment marketing 
• Conceptual marketing 
• Mass marketing 
• Micro marketing 
• Niche marketing

40. An estimate the total financial value of the brand is–

• Brand valuation 
• Brand tracking 
• Brand auditing 
• Brand partitioning 
• Brand equity

41. The total combined customer value of all the company's current and potential customers is called–

• Customer share 
• Customer delight 
• Customer loyalty
• Customer orientation 
• Customer equity

42. We can say that a ………. has three characteristics. 
(1) It is a source of competitive advantage in that it makes a significant contribution to perceived customer benefits; 
(2) It has application in a wide variety of markets, and 
(3) It is difficult for competitors to imitate.

• strategic business unit 
• core competency 
• business strategy 
• winning strategy 
• core technology

43. Which demographic segmentation divides buyers into different groups based on social class, lifestyle or personality characteristics?

• Age and life cycle segmentation 
• Gender segmentation 
• Age segmentation
• Psycho graphic segmentation 
• Income segmentation

44. The internet version of word of mouth marketing is termed as–

• Viral marketing 
• Web marketing 
• Channel marketing 
• Network marketing 
• Virtual marketing

45. ………. is the development, interpretation and communication of decision oriented information to be used in all phases of marketing process.

• Marketing forecast 
• Market intelligence 
• Market planning
• Marketing research 
• Marketing information system

46. GATT is more than 60 years old treaty designed to promote world trade by reducing tariff and other international trade barriers. GATT stands for–

• General Aspects on Tariff and Trade 
• General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade 
• Geneva Agreement on Trade and Tariff
• General Allowance for Trade and Tariff 
• Geneva Agreement on Traffic or Trade

47. People differ greatly in their readiness to try new products. Which of the following do not belong to the adapter categorization on the basis of relation time of adopter of innovators?

• Innovators 
• Laggards 
• Early majority 
• Late majority 
• Super majority

48. As per BCG Matrix of classification of SBUs of an organization, Cash cows are SBUs that typically generate–

• large Awareness levels but few sales 
• problems for product managers often 
• high industry growth
• more cash than that can be invested profitably in its own business 
• paper losses in the long run

49. A strategy of pricing involves using price as in a competitive weapon in order to push competitors out of market or eliminate competitors.

• bargain 
• psychological 
• premium 
• advanced 
• predatory

50. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is an autonomous apex–

• consultative body
• statutory body 
• advisory body 
• cooperative body 
• corporate body

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