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Showing posts with label Bank Clerk Exam Paper. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Bank Clerk Exam Paper. Show all posts

Saturday, 23 August 2014

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Examination IBPS Clerk General Awareness Questions

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Examination
 IBPS Clerk General Awareness Questions
1. The largest bank in India is ..........?
  • ICICI bank
  • Syndicate Bank
  • Union bank of India
  • Bank of India
  • State Bank of India
2. State bank of India head office is in ..........?
  • New Delhi
  • Kolkata
  • Chennai
  • Mumbai
  • Hyderabad
3. Mumbai has the head offices of many Financial Institutes. Which of the following bank/ institute/ PSU do not have the head office in Mumbai?
  • SEBI
  • RBI
  • Bank of Baroda
  • Bank of India
  • IDBI
4. Bank of Baroda, Andhra Bank and L&G(U.K) established 'M/S India Invest'. M/S India Invest is a ..........?
  • Real Estate Company
  • Insurance Company
  • Foreign Exchange Office
  • Stock Exchange
  • Savings Plan
5. Insurance Company 'Met Life' has headquarters in ..........?
  • Canada
  • Japan
  • England
  • U.S.A
  • Australia
6. Australia based IAG (Insurance Australia Group) and .......... had tie up to do General Insurance business?
  • SBI
  • LIC
  • UTI
  • Reliance Industries
  • Rcom
7. SBI is the largest public sector bank. Which is the second largest public sector bank crossed having of 5,000 branches?
  • Bank of India
  • Bank of Baroda
  • ICICI 
  • Punjab National Bank
  • Union Bank of India
8. Punjab National Bank and .......... had tie up together to have Core Banking Solutions (CBS) linking of its Regional Rural Banks (RRB)?
  • NABARD
  • SBI
  • IDBI
  • UTI
  • SBI DHFI
9. NABARD ( National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) established JLG to extract the productive capability from rural population?
  • Junior Link Group
  • Join Life Group
  • Joint Line Gauge
  • Joint Liability Group
  • None
10. Joint Liability Groups replicate the ..........?
  • Sole Help Group
  • Sole Help Grain
  • Stone Help Group
  • Second Help Group
  • Self Help Group
11. Self Help Groups will be provided with 7 % rate of interest on par with .......... as decided by central government recently?
  • Vehicle Loan
  • Business Loan
  • Home Loan
  • Agriculture Loan
  • All of above
12. Agriculture Loans are called Regulated Loans. Which Deposit is Regulated Deposit other than NRI account?
  • Savings Account
  • Fixed Deposit
  • Current Account
  • Recurring Account
  • Joint Account
13. Savings Deposits cannot be opened/operated by ..........?
  • Public Sector Banks
  • Co-operative Banks
  • Foreign Banks
  • Non-Banking Finance Companies
  • Private Sector Banks
14. Non-Banking Companies list given. Pick up wrong one?
  • Sri Ram Finance
  • Mutthoot Finance
  • Manappuram Finance
  • ICICI Bank
  • Margadarsi Finance
15. ICICI is the ..........private bank in India?
  • Second largest
  • Third largest
  • Sixth largest
  • Largest
  • Tenth largest
16. Largest borrower in India is ..........?
  • Reserve Bank of India
  • Government of India
  • State bank of India
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • None
17. Government of India declares Minimum Support Price (MSP) for many goods/products every year. Which of the following commodities do not cover MSP in principle?
  • Paddy
  • Bank Products
  • Wheat
  • Gram
  • Millets
18. Bank products do not cover ..........?
  • Deposit
  • Judicial Stamps
  • Loans
  • Credit Cards
  • All of above
19. Judicial Stamps and Postal Stamps are printed in Indian Security press Nasik. Nasik is in ..........?
  • Andhra Pradesh
  • West Bengal
  • Odisha
  • Tamilnadu
  • Maharastra
20. Maharastra based bank, Bank of Maharastra celebrated .......... celebrations in 2010. Its head office is in Pune?
  • Silver
  • Gold
  • Platinum
  • Centenary
  • Diamond
21. Platinum Celebrations of .......... celebrated On that eve, One rupee coin minted?
  • Reserve Bank of India
  • State Bank of India
  • Central Bank of India
  • Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  • None
22. Reserve Bank of India established Credit Guarantee Corporation of India ( CGCI) in 1971 to encourage more flow of banks credit to ..........?
  • Big industries 
  • Self Help Groups
  • Small business firms
  • Co-operative banks
  • Software industries
23. Small business and poor families approach ..........to take small amounts of loans?
  • Foreign banks
  • Public Sector banks
  • Private Sector banks
  • Micro-Finance Companies
  • Rating Agencies
24. Micro-Finance companies Bill passed by ..........to control nuisance of micro-finance
companies?
  • Karnataka
  • Maharastra
  • Andhra Pradesh
  • West Bengal
  • Odisha
25. Andhra Pradesh head office bank is ..........?
  • State bank of Hyderabad
  • Syndicate bank
  • Union bank of India
  • HDFC
  • United Bank of India
26. The term not related to banking is ..........?
  • Crossing
  • NPA
  • Priority Sector Lending
  • On Line banking
  • Call option
27. Term not related to Stock Market is ..........?
  • DEMAT
  • Bad Delivery
  • Badala
  • Bid and Offer
  • Basel
28. Term not related to Economics?
  • Diminishing Marginal Utility
  • Demand and Supply
  • National Income
  • Consumer Surplus
  • Law of Motion
29. Which term not related to Banking Technology?
  • NEFT
  • RTGS
  • BOUNCE
  • SWIFT
  • ATM
30. Which is not a currency of any country in the world?
  • Dolla
  • Lira
  • Brussels
  • Pound
  • Yuan
31. Which is not a subsidiary/Associate/agency of any bank in India?
  • SBH
  • ICICI Lombard
  • NABARD
  • SBI Life
  • All of above
32. 113th Constitutional amendment related to ..........?
  • Change the state name of Orissa to Odisha
  • Right to Education
  • Voter's eligibility age reduced from 21 years to 18 years
  • Establishment of GST council
  • Making Election commission as multiple body
33. Coal India recently got the status of ..........?
  • Navarathna
  • Mini-Ratna
  • Maharatna
  • Veerratna
  • None
34. As per the 2011 census, the lowest population state is ..........?
  • Sikkim
  • Goa
  • Manipur
  • Meghalaya
  • Assom
35. First time Lokpal Bill introduced in parliament in ..........?
  • 1)1968
  • 2)1971
  • 3)1951
  • 2001
  • 2011
36. New war ship 'Trikhand' introduced in Indian Navy. It is manufactured and imported from ..........?
  • USA
  • France
  • Australia
  • Russia
  • Japan
37. 'Scotia Prince' is the boat run between ..........after 30 years?
  • India and China
  • India and Australia
  • India and Myanmar
  • India and Sri Lanka
  • India and Russia
38. Expand PURA?
  • Urban Areas in Rural Areas
  • Universal Amenities in Rural Areas
  • Urban Amenities in Roll Areas
  • Urban Areians in Rural Areas
  • Urban Amenities in Rural Areas
39. Co-ordinated Boarder Management plan is the agreement between India and..........?
  • Pakistan
  • Bhutan
  • Bangladesh
  • Nepal
  • Sri Lanka
40. Which city celebrated 372 years entry on 22nd August 2011?
  • Hyderabad
  • Mumbai
  • Chennai
  • Bengaluru
  • Mumbai
41. West Bengal name changed to ..........?
  • Purva Banga
  • Uttama Banga
  • Pachima Banga
  • Eleve Banga
  • Tagore Banga
42. 99th Science congress summit will be held in ..........?
  • Tamilnadu
  • Delhi
  • Rajasthan
  • Odisha
  • Goa
43. In BRICS summit, 'S' stands for..........?
  • Somalia
  • South Korea
  • Sri Lanka
  • South Africa
  • Swaziland
44. 2012 Pravasa Bharatiya Summit venue is ..........?
  • Jodhpur
  • Jaipur
  • Lucknow
  • Chennai
  • Bellary
45. Which IPS officer crossed palk strait on 25 march 2011?
  • Aruna Bahuguna
  • Rajiv Verma
  • Rajiv Trivedi
  • Madam Straint
  • None of above
46. .......... was appointed as chief of Change Management Team by UNO?
  • Anitha Kapur
  • Jeevan Reddy
  • Atul Khare
  • Y.V.Reddy
  • H S Puri
47. Coasta First Naval Award 2010 got by ..........?
  • Red Cross Society
  • Asha Bhonsle
  • Kiswar Desai
  • Manoj Pandey
  • Diwakar Prem

Sunday, 3 August 2014

Indian Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2011 Held on 2-1-2011 General Awareness : Solved Paper

Indian Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2011
Held on 2-1-2011 General Awareness : Solved Paper
1. On which one of the following ‘Head of Expenses’, the expenses of the Government of India are highest ?
  • Food subsidy
  • Fertilizer subsidy
  • Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
  • Maintenance of national highways
  • Oil subsidy
2. Which one of the following foreign agencies will assist the municipal agencies to improve quality of municipal schools through its School Excellence Programmes (SEP) ?
  • IMF
  • UNDP
  • UNICEF
  • ADB
  • None of these
3. Which of the following carries out ‘Open Market Operations’ ?
  • Finance Ministry
  • External Affairs Ministry
  • Reserve Bank of India
  • Planning Commission
  • Ministry of Commerce
4. Who among the following Ministers will hold telecom portfolio in addition to his own portfolio till next reallotment ?
  • Kamal Nath
  • Kapil Sibal
  • Pranab Mukherjee
  • Mamta Banerjee
  • None of these
5. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the RBI issues directives to the Banks in India ?
  • RBI Act
  • Banking Regulation Act
  • Essential Commodities Act
  • RBI and Banking Regulation Act
  • None of these
6. Which one of the following tools is used by RBI for selective credit control ?
  • It advises banks to lend against certain commodities
  • It advises banks to recall the loans for advances against certain commodities
  • It advises banks to charge higher rate of interest for advance against certain commodities
  • It discourages certain kinds of lending by assigning higher risk weights to loans it deems undesirable
  • None of these
7. For which one of the following Loan Products ‘teaser loans’ are offered by Banks ?
  • Education Loans
  • Commercial Loans
  • Loans against security of gold
  • Retail Trade Loans
  • Home Loans
8. The Commonwealth Games 2010 were held in Delhi from October 3 to 14, 2010. Who amongst the following picked up the Game’s first gold medal ?
  • Augustina Nwaokolo
  • Ravinder Singh
  • Azhar Hussain
  • Carol Huynh
  • None of these
9. In which one of the following cities was the recent meet of G–20 Countries organised ?
  • Tokyo
  • Seoul
  • London
  • Beijing
  • Singapore
10. As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries (among the given) has highest literacy rate ?
  • India
  • Sri Lanka
  • China
  • Vietnam
  • Bangladesh
11. Which one of the following has decided to give guarantee for infra loans ?
  • IDBI
  • SBI
  • IIFCL
  • SIDBI
  • None of these
12. In which one of the following States is the uranium project proposed to be set up ?
  • Manipur
  • Meghalaya
  • Orissa
  • Assam
  • Nagaland
13. Amongst 169 countries on Human Development Index which one of the following is India’s rank ?
  • 89
  • 91
  • 119
  • 129
  • 138
14. What is ‘Kaveri’ ?
  • India’s indigeneous aircraft engine
  • India’s low cost laptop
  • India’s Air to Air Missile
  • India’s guided Surface to Air Missile
  • Unmanned Aircraft acquired from Israel
15. An increasing finished good stock as % to sales of a manufacturing Company indicates that ……….
1. the market is getting competitive
2. the quality of the goods is not upto the mark
3. the production cost has increased
4. the production has decreased
  • Only 1 and 2
  • Only 2 and 3
  • Only 3 and 4
  • Only 3
  • Only 4 and 1
16. Which one of the following has got RBI nod to issue prepaid cards to its clients ?
  • LIC
  • GIC
  • SIDBI
  • NABARD
  • None of these
17. For which one of the following reasons is an amendment in Companies Bill 2009 proposed ?
  • To provide more powers to Department of Company Affairs
  • To provide regulatory powers to Department of Company Affairs
  • To make Indian Accounting Standards applicable with effect from 1.4.2011
  • To ensure smooth convergence of the Indian Accounting Standards with IFRS
  • None of these
18. As per recent newspaper reports, India’s public debt rises 2.8 per cent to Rs. 28 lakh crore. Which one of the following is the reason that has forced commercial banks to buy Government securities ?
  • Lack of credit growth
  • Increase in credit growth
  • Raising of repo rate
  • Raising of reverse repo rate
  • None of these
19. In which one of the following States Sariska Tiger Reserve is located ?
  • M. P.
  • U. P.
  • Orissa
  • Gujarat
  • Rajasthan
20. On which one of the following characters, Biometric security is based ?
  • Finger prints and palm recognition only
  • Face recognition and voice recognition only
  • Hand writing and manual recognition only
  • Only first 2
  • All three
21. Which one of the following may be the consequence of buying forex in the marked by the RBI ?
  • It leads to inflation
  • It leads to control over inflation
  • It does not affect inflation
  • It results into deflation
  • None of these
22. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the Reserve Bank of India has the power to regulate, supervise and control the banking sector ?
  • RBI Act
  • Banking Regulation Act
  • Negotiable Instrument Act
  • RBI and Banking Regulation Act
  • None of these
23. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The God of Small Things’ ?
  • Chetan Bhagat
  • V. S. Naipul
  • Namita Gokhale
  • Kiran Desai
  • Arundhati Roy
24. Which one of the following has proposed $ 11 billion infrastructure debt fund ?
  • NABARD
  • SBI
  • RBI
  • Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India
  • Planning Commission
25. Myanmar’s pro-democracy leader Suu Kyi is a ……….
  • 42 years old politician
  • Bharat Ratna
  • Military General
  • Nobel Prize winner
  • None of these
26. Which one of the following factors influence working capital of a unit ?
  • Seasonality of operations only
  • Production Policy only
  • Suppliers Term only
  • None of The Above
  • All The Above
27. One of the following states is a major producer of spices ……….
  • Karnataka
  • Tamil Nadu
  • Kerala
  • Gujarat
  • Manipur
28. The NAV of a mutual fund ……
  • Is always constant
  • Keeps going up at a steady rate
  • Fluctuates with market price movements
  • Cannot go down at all
  • None of these
29. The expansion of TRAI is …….
  • Telecom Regulations and Inspection
  • Transport Regulatory Authority of India
  • Train Regulatory Authority of India
  • Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
  • Transfer Regulations Act of India
30. ASBA, a facility while applying / submitting an application for purchase of shares under a public issue, is ……….
  • Applications Simple Balance Amount
  • Amount Saved and Balance in Account
  • Already Savings Blocked Amount
  • Applications Supported by Blocked Amount
  • None of these
31. A Saving Bank Deposit Account is one where ……….
  • Amounts are deposited and are withdrawn as per requirement of the customers
  • The deposits are made only once in a year
  • Periodical Fixed amount are deposited month wise and withdrawals are allowed after a fixed period
  • All the above
  • None of these
32. Who is the Chief Minister of Maharashtra at present ?
  • Ashok Chavan
  • R. R. Patil
  • Vilasrao Deshmukh
  • Sushil Kumar Shinde
  • None of these
33. The expansion of CDMA is …….
  • Calculated Division of Many Applications
  • Computer Divided Multiple Access
  • Code Diversified Memory Applications
  • Code Division Multiple Access
  • None of these
34. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
  • Tennis
  • Hockey
  • Badminton
  • Cricket
  • Football
35. Which of the following is a financial asset ?
  • Gold
  • Silver
  • Shares in a demat account
  • Land & buildings
  • None of these
36. Zero balance account is generally allowed to be opened for ……….
  • Salaried class
  • businessmen
  • foreign customers
  • children
  • Senior Citizens
37. In Deposits Account ‘KYC’ (Know Your Customer) has been implemented in 2002 as per directive of ……….
  • IBA
  • RBI
  • Ministry of Finance
  • SEBI
  • IRDA
38. The regulator of the banking system in India is………
  • AMFI
  • Finance Minister
  • SEBI
  • IBA
  • RBI
39. Ten Rupee notes contain the signature of………
  • Finance Secretary, GOI
  • Chairman, State Bank of India
  • Governor, Reserve Bank of India
  • Finance Minister, GOI
  • Prime Minister
40. Statue of Liberty is the national monument of ……….
  • Italy
  • Australia
  • France
  • Denmark
  • USA
41. Loan against the security of immovable property is by executing an agreement of ……….
  • Assignment
  • Pledge
  • Transfer
  • Mortgage
  • None of these
42. Credit Rating ……….
  • is used to rate the borrowers while giving advances
  • is used to work out performance of the employees
  • is used to calculate the number of excellent audit rated branches
  • is NOT used in any Bank
  • is necessary before giving promotion to employees
43. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2010’ ?
  • Javed Akhtar
  • Amitabh Bachchan
  • Gulzar
  • Hema Malini
  • None of these
44. In Corporate Hedging, which one of the following types of risks can be covered ?
  • Liquidity risk
  • Currency risk
  • Credit risk
  • Transaction risk
  • None of these
45. Bank of Rajasthan is now merged with which of the following banks ?
  • AXIS Bank
  • IDBI Bank
  • ICICI Bank
  • HDFC Bank
  • None of these
46. As per GDP figures on calendar year basis, according to World Bank, which one of the following economies will have highest GDP growth in the year 2011 ?
  • US
  • China
  • Japan
  • India
  • Brazil
47. In respect of infrastructure bonds issued under provisions of Section 80 CCF of the Income Tax Act, what is the maximum amount (Rs. in thousands), upto which these bonds can be covered ?
  • 30
  • 20
  • 40
  • 50
  • None of these
48. Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation ‘IFRS’ as used in corporate / finance sector ?
  • Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards
  • Interpretation and Formal Reporting System
  • International Financial Reporting Standards
  • International Financial Reporting System
  • None of these
49. As per the new guidelines issued by SEBI, companies are required to list shares within how many days of the closure of the Initial Public Offers (IPOs) ?
  • 60 days
  • 12 days
  • 30 days
  • 45 days
  • None of these
50. RTGS stands for ……….
  • Real Time Gross Settlements
  • Reduced Time Gross Settlements
  • Relative Time Gross Settlements
  • Real Total Gross Securities
  • None of these

Saturday, 2 August 2014

Vijaya Bank Clerk Exam.,2010 Held on 7-2-2010 Reasoning Ability Solved Paper

Vijaya Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
Held on 7-2-2010 Reasoning Ability Solved Paper
1. How many such pairs of digits are there in number ‘36725918’ each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the numbers ?
  • None
  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • More than three
2. What should come next in the following number series ?
6 8 8 1 2 6 8 6 1 2 3 6 8 8 1 2 3 4 6 8 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 ?
  • 6
  • 1
  • 4
  • 8
  • None of these
3. In a certain code PAGE is written as ‘3%7@’, SORE is written as 8©9@. How is ‘PEAS’ written in that code ?
  • 3@©8
  • 3@%9
  • 3@%8
  • 3%@8
  • None of these
4. If ‘@’ means ‘x, ‘©’ means ‘÷’, ‘%’ means ‘+’ and ‘$’ means ‘–’ then ………
6 % 12 © 3 @ 8 $ 3 = ?
  • 37
  • 35
  • 39
  • 33
  • None of these
5. In a certain code ‘MOUSE’ is written as ‘PRUQC’. How is ‘SHIFT’ written in that code ?
  • VKIRD
  • VKIDR
  • VJIDR
  • VIKRD
  • None of these
6. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word ?
  • None
  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • More than three
7. Among A, B, C, D and E each scoring different marks in a test, C scored more than D but not as much as E. E scored more than A who scored less than B. Who score third highest marks ?
  • B
  • A
  • C
  • Data inadequate
  • None of these
8. ‘K’ walked 5 metre towards North, took a left turn and walked for 10 metre. He then took a right turn and walked for 20 metre, and again took right turn and walked 10 metre. How far he is from the starting point ?
  • 20 metre
  • 15 metre
  • 25 metre
  • 30 metre
  • None of these
9. Pointing to a girl, Mr. Suraj said “she is the only daughter of my father’s son-in-law”. How is the girl related to Mr. Suraj ?
  • Niece
  • Cousin
  • Sister
  • Daughter
  • Cannot be determined
10. Sneha correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is before 16th June but after 11th June whereas her younger brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 13th June but before 18th June and her elder brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is on an even date. On what date in June is definitely their father’s birthday ?
  • Sixteenth
  • Twelfth
  • Fourteenth or Sixteenth
  • Data inadequate
  • None of these
11. How many such digits are there in the number ‘37152869’ each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?
  • None
  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • More than three
12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CONFIRM’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
  • None
  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • More than three
13. ‘KN’ is related to ‘QT’ in the same way as ‘DG’ related to ……….
  • JN
  • IM
  • JM
  • IN
  • IL
Directions—(Q. 14–16) Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below :
518 849 365 783 291
14. If the positions of first and third digits in each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of third highest number ?
  • 1
  • 4
  • 8
  • 9
  • 6
15. If the first digit in all the numbers starting with an even digit is replaced by a number preceding it, then which of the following will be the sum of the first digit of the resulting highest and the lowest numbers ?
  • 4
  • 8
  • 7
  • 6
  • 13
16. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
  • 849
  • 365
  • 783
  • 291
  • 518
Directions–(Q. 17–22) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
Q 9 K # P @ 3 E N S A C ? G © U M 7 F I V % 4 Z 8 Y
17. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the right end ?
  • E
  • P
  • I
  • C
  • @
18. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifth to the left of ‘V’ ?
  • 3
  • A
  • N
  • S
  • None of these
19. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
  • V
  • 4
  • %
  • E
  • None of these
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
  • IM%
  • CNG
  • 3#N
  • UGC
  • GAU
21. How many such symbols are there in above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by an alphabet and immediately followed by a number ?
  • None
  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • More than three
22. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?
  • None
  • One
  • Three
  • Two
  • None of these
Directions—(Q. 23–28) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

23. Statements :
All coins are glasses.
Some glasses are cups.
Some cups are boxes.
All boxes are pins.
Conclusions :
I. Some coins are cups.
II. Some pins are glasses.
III. Some cups are pins.
  • None follows
  • Only I follows
  • Only III follows
  • Only II and III follow
  • None of these
24. Statements :
Some pens are pencils.
All pencils are caps.
All caps are buses.
Some buses are trains.
Conclusions :
I. Some trains are caps.
II. Some pens are buses.
III. Some pencils are trains.
  • Only I follows
  • Only II follows
  • Only I and III follow
  • None follow
  • All I, II and III follow
25. Statements :
All shirts are skirts.
All skirts are banks.
All banks are roads.
All roads are brushes.
Conclusions :
I. All banks are skirts.
II. All roads are banks.
III. Some brushes are shirts.
  • Only I follows
  • Only III follows
  • Only I and III follow
  • All I, II and III follow
  • None follows
26. Statements :
Some fishes are plates.
Some plates are spoons.
Some spoons are plants.
All plants are crows.
Conclusions :
I. Some plates are crows.
II. Some crows are spoons.
III. Some plants are spoons.
  • Only I follows
  • Only I and II follow
  • None follows
  • Only II and III follow
  • Either I or III follows
27. Statements :
Some eggs are hens.
Some hens are ducks.
All ducks are pigeons.
All pigeons are sparrows.
Conclusions :
I. All ducks are sparrows.
II. No egg is duck.
III. Some sparrows are hens.
  • Only I follows
  • Only I and II follow
  • Only III follows
  • Only I and III follow
  • All I, II and III follow
28. Statements :
No man is tiger.
No tiger is cat.
Some cats are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions :
I. Some tigers are cats.
II. Some cats are men.
III. Some lions are men.
  • None follows
  • Only III follows
  • Only I and II follow
  • Only I follows
  • Only II and III follow
Directions—(Q. 29–33) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P © Q’ means P is not smaller than Q
‘P * Q’ means P is not greater than Q
‘P @ Q’ means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
‘P $ Q’ means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
‘P % Q’ means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answers accordingly.
29. Statements :
K © L, L % O, O @ M, M * N
Conclusions : 
I. N © O
II. M $ L
III. K * N
IV. L @ N
  • Only II is true
  • Only I and II are true
  • Only I is true
  • Either I or II is true
  • None is true
30. Statements :
A * B, B $ C, C % D, D © E
Conclusions : 
I. D $ A
II. B $ D
III. E % C
IV. A @ E
  • Only I is ture
  • Only either I or II is true
  • Only I and IV are true
  • None is true
  • Only IV is true
31. Statements :
F $ P, P @ R, R © S, S % T
Conclusions : 
I. R % F
II. S * P
III. P © T
IV. S % F
  • Only I, II and III are true
  • Only I and II are true
  • Only III and IV are true
  • Only I, II and IV are true
  • All are true
32. Statements :
G % H, H * I, I $ J, J @ K
Conclusions : 
I. G % I
II. G % J
III. K $ I
IV. H * J
  • Only I is true
  • Only II is true
  • Only I, II and III are true
  • Only either I or II and III are true
  • All are true
33. Statements :
V @ W, W % X, X * Y, Y $ Z
Conclusions : 
I. Z $ X
II. Y © V
III. W % Y
IV. Y @ W
  • Only I and III are true
  • Only II is true
  • Only III is true
  • None is true
  • Only III and IV are true
Directions–(Q. 34–40) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is fourth to the left of F who is fifth to right of E. D is third to the right of A who is not immediate neighbour of E of F. B is third to left of H who is not immediate neighbour of E.
34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
  • HFE
  • DCG
  • BHF
  • AEF
  • CGB
35. Who is between D and E ?
  • C
  • B
  • A
  • Data inadequate
  • None of these
36. Which of the following pairs are sitting between A and D ?
  • FB
  • GB
  • FG
  • FE
  • GE
37. Who is third to the right of E ?
  • B
  • F
  • D
  • G
  • None of these
38. Who is to the immediate right of A ?
  • G
  • B
  • F
  • Data inadequate
  • None of these
39. What is D’s position with respect to B ?
1.Immediate right
2.Fourth to the right
3.Third to the left
4.Immediate left
  • Only (1)
  • Only (2
  • Only (2) and (3
  • Only (4)
  • Only either (1) or (2)
40. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate left of the second person ?
  • CH
  • GA
  • BD
  • FG
  • None of these